I have customer who is a self employed financial advisor – not a problem.
However….he owns 15, yes 15 properties that are rented out. He has mortgages on all of them. Some of them are in negative equity, some of them are not. He had sold the previous family home in order to put deposits down on the properties mentioned.
He has advised that he bought these properties as an investment for his children. Because of this, we have therefore looked into the value of the properties, and after deducting 10% selling costs and outstanding mortgage, we have treated the balance as capital – consequence excess capital.
Before this guy appeals – which he will do, I need to ensure the above is the correct action. Surely, by owning 15 properties he must be running it as a business? Or is it because he has stated he has bought them as an investment for his children enough for us to look at the capital only?
With 2nd properties still an area for discussion and confusion, would appreciate some help.