Beneficial interest

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    Anonymous
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    Help needed as I am more confused than normal!

    About 6 months aga we received a letter from a company which stated that they had sold a property which they were Council Tax liable for. At the time they had not paid any of the instalments.

    When we sent them a final bill they responded by saying they had in fact never owned the property and only had a beneficial interest in the property.

    I have checked with land registry who confirm that they had not owned the property.

    My question is

    Surely they are liable for the period in which they had beneficial interest under the hierarchy of liability?

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