Elderly couple live in a home owned by non resident son. Moved in three years ago.
They occupy under a verbal agreement that they pay the mortgage (direct to the mortgage company) and pay for upkeep/maintenance of the property. They have said they intend to live out the rest of their life at the property. The verbal agreement appears to just confirm the requirement to pay, I do not believe that they have any understanding or agreement of what action may be taken if payment stopped. They have said they entered into this arrangement because they were unable to get a mortgage themselves due to age.
There is clearly a liability to pay (Reg 12(2)?)and it can be demonstrated for the previous 3 years. As the liability varies depending on the current mortgage can this arrangement be considered to be a periodic assured Shorthold tenancy? or could it be a long tenancy, not sure if a long tenancy has to specifically say it will last more than 21 years.
Would anyone pay HB on this arrangement? 😕