Tying myself in knots here. Am I right in thinking there are conflicting definitions of remunerative work? I have a claimant on maternity pay paying childcare. She was in remunerative work prior to going on maternity leave so I have convinced myself that under HB reg 28 (2006), the childcare disregard should apply.
However, for the purposes of reg 6 (Hb regs 06, again), maternity leave doesn’t count as remunerative work.
I am fairly satisfied in the above, but before I rush off to our software providers (IBS) and ask why the system will not allow a distinction (it will allow the additional earnings disregard AND childcare, but not either/or), I’d be grateful for the reassurance that I won’t be making a total fool of myself. Though obviously I’m prepared to appear foolish here!
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