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Valuation of property

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  • May 5, 2006 at 2:45 pm #22196
    junderwo
    Participant

    When the valuer gives a valuation of a deemed undivided share on an LA2 (in this case the ex partner has remained in the property and is not willing to sell the property or buy the other share) is it this figure (less 10%) that is classed as capital?

    In the past I have always assumed it is but the phrase “undivided share” seems to indicate that you may then divide this valuation between the 2 beneficial joint owners. How can you have an undivided share?

    May 8, 2006 at 9:08 am #7075
    Anonymous
    Guest

    The deemed share may be worthless. Have a look at R(JSA)1/02 to see how this works

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